O'Really?

February 18, 2013

2 Comments »

  1. oh that’s an abuse of the use of ‘meta’. meta was used only because aristotle’s “metaphysics” had no name and was commonly placed after his “physics” book, hence plain old philosophy and/or epistemology got lumped under metaphysics. and now people use the term “meta” for anything vaguely epistemological, especially now we have godel’s theorem where meaning of mathematics gets mixed up with the mathematics. and now i guess we’ve come after the fact.

    Comment by Bosco — February 18, 2013 @ 12:01 pm | Reply


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